Home » IMAT Past Papers » IMAT Past Paper 2021 – Worked Solutions


1. E

The passage is claiming that bread is the item we throw away the most, and compares the other items thrown away less by saying that we value these items more. This implies that the less food is valued the more is thrown away. This matches option E

To make sure you have the correct answer, negate option E, which becomes “The main reason why we throw food away is that we DO value it a lot” and you notice that the conclusion is destroyed. So this is the correct answer

2. C

Draw a circle and use a symbol for men and for women (in my case I have used a black circle for men and a red circle for women). You can see a + mark on the two women who are not next to a man, and there are only two of them.

3. E

Basically what they are saying here is that the name of each of these states are placed vertically and the letters (in capitals) can spin. They want you to find the one that looks the same when the letters spin. 

All you need to do is identify which state has purely symmetrical letters. I.e. the letters L, N, D, K all look different when you spin them (you can test this yourself), but all the letters in HAWAII are completely the same when spun. So the answer is E

4. E

The conclusion is “These factors would indicate that young performers need further protection by law”. This is what the author wants to convince us off and is the reason they wrote the passage. This matches option E.

5. C

We are told that there are 10%, 20% and 40% that like a certain brand, and then that there are 33 (27 +6) that remain. That means 30% of the cats must equal 33 cats. 33 divided by 0.3 is 110.

6. E

The conclusion is “more of these individuals should just go outside for a run or a walk” and the basis for this conclusion is that people who do a lot of outdoor activities tend to have high self-esteem. This assumes that outdoor activities cause higher self esteem, but it could just be a correlation, that is that people with high self esteem are more inclined to take part in outdoor activities.

7. C

He does not want glitter, so this rules out Village Scene. He wants 2-fold, so this rules out Robins and Cartoon. Thus only Religious and Father Xmas are candidates. 

We can see Father Xmas has twice as many cards, but is less than twice as expensive as Religious, so Father Xmas will likely be the choice. However, the drawback is he only wants 35 but can only buy in units of 10 (so we would get 40). If he buys 40 Father Xmas we spend 12.40

Compare this to 7 Religious which costs 12.60. Thus he will buy Father Xmas and spend 12.40

8. E

We can break this passage into simple form, which could be “if you are from X you will get Y. You are not from X, so you wont necessarily get Y”. Option E can also be broken into this form, so it is the answer

9. E

We can see the reason for the committees decision in the words “because his medical need for a transplant was more urgent” which thus shows that the basis for the committees decision was medical need. This best matches option E

10. B

Turn the picture upside down first and you will see it was 05:02. Now add 1 and half hours (1:30) to this and we get 06:32. Turn that upside down and we get option B

11. D

The Metropolitan Opera House is in New York

12. D

Francis Ford Coppola directed The Godfather

13. C

The Treaty of Paris established the European Coal and Steel Community

14. B

Hans Jonas was a philosopher

15. B

The Rosetta Stone provided the key to decipher Egyptian hieroglyphs 

16. E

A bicameral system has two houses of parliament 

17. B

Uncle Vanya was written by Anton Chekhov.

18. B

The FAO is the Food and Agriculture Organization

19. E

Niels Bohr made contributions to understanding atomic structure and quantum theory, he was not related to the electron microscope

20. A

Elena Ferrante was the author

21. B

The European Parliament is elected by universal suffrage

22. A

The World Trade Organization has this task

23. E

Instantly you can see the answer is E as hydrogen gas has no charge (thus zero oxidation number) on the left but a positive charge on the right. So a redox reaction took place

24. E

The stroma is the fluid-filled internal space of the chloroplasts, and proton pumps are found on membranes, so this cannot be a place we find them. The same holds true for the gap between the thylakoid membranes

Granum are the stacks of thylakoids, and thylakoids are the site of the light reaction, which requires proton pumps. Thus only 3 is true

25. A

Cholesterol works as a fluidity buffer so instantly we know A is correct

26. E

Autosomal dominant means it is not sex linked and we need just one allele for the phenotype to be expressed. In option 2 we see an effected father passes the trait to one daughter but not to another (meaning in this case it cannot be sex linked). This is therefore the answer

27. A

Viruses can have single stranded or double stranded DNA or RNA so 1,2 and 3 are correct

28. A

Mitosis occurs in non-germ eukaryotic cells. B is a virus, which is not a cell. C is a mitochondria. D is a prokaryote. E is a plant cell (look at the granum). Thus the answer is A

29. D

A reduction in the concentration of oxygen in the atmosphere means demand for oxygen will increase which would increase the demand for red blood cells.

Red blood cells can be the target of a bacterial infection, which would reduce their quantity thus increase the demand for them. 

Increased differentiation of bone marrow stem cells can also increase red blood cell count since this is where they come from

30. D

3 fatty acids reacting with glycerol will form a triglyceride and release 3 water molecules, meaning 3 oxygens and 6 hydrogens will be removed. 

We have a total of 56 hydrogens, so taking away 6 will leave us with 50. We also have a total of 9 oxygens so taking away 3 will leave us with 6. We have a total of 27 carbons and none are removed in the reaction. So the formula must be C27H50O6

31. C

If a cell has four pairs of homologous chromosomes it must have 8, so this rules out row 1 and 2. At the end of meiosis 1 we should have two cells with half this quantity and after meiosis 2 we should have 4 of them. So row 3 is correct

32. C

If the DNA strand is TATGATCTTAGGCAACAT then the mRNA must be AUACUAGAAUCCGUUGUA. There is a total of 18 bases. There are 6 A’s, 6 U’s, 3 C’s and 3 G’s. 

We can rule out A and D as the there should be an equal amount of C and G. We can also rule out E as we have more A and U than we have C and G. We can rule out B as we don’t have T in RNA. Only option C remains

33. D

T points to a dense area inside the nucleus, which must be the nucleolus. This is the site where ribosomes are made, so we know row 5 is correct

34. A

The Venn diagram tells us that X refers to bile, Z refers to amylase and Y refers to both. 

Bile emulsifies lipids and is secreted into the small intestine. Amylase breaks down starch and is secreted in the saliva and also in the small intestine. So row 5 is correct.

35. C

The cornea is the outer layer of the eye, while all other options refer to internal organs. Thus logically the cornea is the one we would expect to be the answer (you do not need to know anything specific about transplant rejection to answer this question).

36. B

1 is true since the SRY gene initiates the development of male characteristics. This also applies to option 3, and crossing over can occur so option 3 must also be true. 

2 is false, as a trisomy refers to having 3 sex chromosomes (i.e. XYY). If the ova is normal then it means the sperm is the one contributing to the trisomy, and it has the SRY gene on the Y chromosome meaning a male should be formed. 

37. D

The cornea does refract light, however, it does not adjust this refraction. The retina contains sensory neurons. 2 points to the fovea, and here we have only cones. The pupil dilates (gets wider) when there is less light so more can enter. So the only correct answer is 4

38. D

Directional selection refers to the phenomenon where more extreme phenotypes (phenotypes to the left or right of the mean phenotype) are favoured and result in better survivability/reproduction. 

As such this can involve a low frequency phenotype being selected. The cause of this evolution could be many things, there is no reason it could not be caused by a predator. The cause could also be due to a recessive allele, which would mean its frequency increases. So row 5 is correct

39. A

The left ventricle pumps blood out the aortic valve when it contracts so clearly when the left ventricle is relaxed the aortic valve should be closed.

40. B

Biological catalysts (enzymes) are found wherever biological reactions take place, which happen all over the cell. Thus 1,2 and 3 are correct

41. D

We can see that this compound has no net charge, so the oxidation numbers of all three elements should cancel out. Oxygen has an oxidation number of -2 and hydrogen has +1. We have n number of oxygen, so oxygen contributes -2n. We have m number of hydrogen so hydrogen contributes +m.

Basically so far the net oxidation number is m – 2n 

If we want a net of zero, then X should contributed 2n – m which cancels out to leave us with a net of zero. Thus the answer is D

42. A

The periodic trend of group 7 is that electronegativity and first ionization energy decrease going down the group. So 2 and 3 are correct. Melting point however increases

43. B

Initially we have 3.2 grams per 100mL (which is 32g/L). If we then take 25mL and put it in a 250mL flask that we fill to max capacity it is the same as diluting the solution 10x. That is we go to 3.2 g/L

If we then take an amount of this fluid and put it somewhere else the concentration is still the same as we haven’t added anything to it, so the answer is B

44. C

Trimethylamine: no hydrogen bonding as there is no N-H bond

Hydrogen sulfide: no hydrogen bond (hydrogen bonds do not happen for H-S bonds)

Ethanoic acid: hydrogen bond present as there is an O-H bond 

Fluoromethane: no hydrogen bonding since the F atom is bonded to the central C atom (F must be bonded to H in order for hydrogen bonding to occur)

Propanal: no hydrogen bond as there is no O-H bond (we have instead a carbon double bond to oxygen)

As such the only option is ethanoic acid

45. C

We have an alcohol (red), amide (blue) and carboxylic acid (green)

46. A

Hexane has the formula C₆H₁₄

1: has only 12 hydrogens so this is not an isomer

2: has the same number of elements but is 2-methylpentane so thus a different molecule. It is thus a structural isomer

3: this is pentane, so not an isomer

47. C

AlCl3 and Al2Cl6 are trigonal planar and tetrahedral respectively, so row 4 is correct

48. E

This element must have 8 protons (mass number – neutrons), thus 8 electrons in its elemental state. In its ionic form it has an additional 2 electrons, so 10 in total. Option E is thus correct

49. A

Find the moles of iron (M=m/n) which becomes n =1.68/56 = 0.03

Find the moles of oxygen n = 0.04

We can see that the ratio between iron and oxygen is 3:4 so the formula is Fe3O4

50. C

Turning chlorine into an ion means adding an electron to create Cl- so option C is correct

51. A

1: false, both have a 0.05 m/L concentration

2: false, both acids are strong acids

3: true, if the concentration was 0.1 the pH would be one, and if the concentration would be 0.01 the pH would be 2. The concentration is 0.05 which is in between these two concentrations so the pH must be in between 2 and 1

52. D

1. False: adding salt will slightly increase the boiling point and lowers the freezing point (think of how salt is used in the winter on icy roads)

2. False: kinetic energy increases as temperature increases and thus lowering it will lower kinetic energy

3. True: increasing pressure will increase the boiling point 

53. A

54. D

Angular velocity = w = 10 rad/s

r = 2.5m

speed = r x w = 2.5 x 10 = 25

acceleration = w2 x r = 100 x 2.5 = 250

Thus row 1 is correct

55. B

56. C

57. D

tanθ(STR) = SR/RT = 2.5/5 = ½

θ = tan-1(1/2)

Since ST is parallel to PQ then angle RTS = RQP

In triangle PRQ…

Tanθ(RQP) = RP/RQ = (RS + SP)/(RT + TQ) = (2.5+1)/(5+TQ)

We know θ = tan-1(1/2)

So tanθ = tan(tan-1(1/2)) = 3.5/(5 + TQ)

1/2 = 3.5/(5 + TQ)

TQ = 2


Area of PRQ = 14cm2

tanPRQ = PQ/RQ

1/7 = PQ/RQ

RQ = 7PQ

1/2 x PQ x RQ = 14

1/2 x PQ x 7PQ = 14

PQ2 = 28/7

PQ2 = 4

PQ = 2

RQ = 7PQ = 14

59. A

X and Y are at the same height, so the pressures must be equal. This means option 2 is correct

F2 is the resultant force of the hydraulic jack so it is greater than F1, so option 3 is correct

60. E