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Home » IMAT Past Papers with Worked Solutions » IMAT Past Paper 2016 – Worked Solutions

IMAT 2016 ANSWERS

1. C

Here you just need to mark the tiles that have the pattern, in the IMAT this means you would use your pen to put a dot or something similar in each of the tiles with the pattern. Don’t forget that tiles can be rotated. The total is 17.

2. E

We want a worker to do as close to 16 hours as possible. This means one worker can do E and G and one can do I, F and H which both do 16 hours. A and B can be done by one worker in 15 hours. This leaves B and D, which cannot be done together by one single worker, but must be done each by one worker, therefore 5 workers are needed.

3. A

For this question draw a rough outline of the unfolded boxes (do this roughly and as quickly as possible to not waste time). Remember that boxes can be rotated. We cannot draw in with actual colours as in the IMAT you will only have black pens, but there are only two colours available for 4 sides so we can designate one colour with a dot and the other colour with no dot

Below you will see the drawings. This means there are 6 options. 

4. A

If 17 skiers went before grace at the end of the first round (that is in the second round), and she was the 6th last to ski, then 23 skiers must have participated in the second round. If three failed in the first round and thus were not counted in the 23 skiers of the second round, then a total of 26 must have competed. 

5. B

Watch the lesson on drawing a conclusion to learn how to solve these questions.

The passage is saying that the participants could not recognise the touched objects by sight alone initially (as it was no better than guesswork), and that recognising touched objects by sight improved within days. This means it must have been learned and not innate, which makes this the appropriate conclusion. 

6. B

The large van starts loading at 8:00 and will be back after 2 and a half hours (30 minutes for loading, 2 for driving and returning). This means the driver will start packing at 8:00, 10:30 and then 1:00 (but at 1:00 he wont pack and will instead have lunch).

Assume the small van also arrives back at the depot at 1:00. Now work backwards (but remember the small van takes 1 hours and 10 minutes to make a trip). This means the times the small van driver will leave the depot are 11:50, 10:40, 9:30 and 8:20. 

The small van driver thus leaves 20 minutes after the larger van driver

7. B

250kg of white flour will be used (this is stated in the question)

54% of 250kg will be used for water which is 135kg

2% of 250kg will be used as salt which is 5kg

17% of 250kg will be used as fat which is 42.5kg 

250 + 135 + 5 + 42.5 = 432.5kg

8. B

You can completely ignore the salt and energy columns. 

First rule out all options with more than 4g of fat, so chicken and tuna. 

Now rule out anything that provides less than 20g of protein, so ham and salad.

We now just have a choice between beef and turkey, beef is cheaper at 2 pounds so 2 pounds is the cheapest price

9. E

Watch the lesson on assumption type questions.

Here the conclusion is that language learners just need exposure not grammar (the last sentence), and this based on the facts in the passage which are that peoples native language is gained through exposure. This means the assumption is that the process is the same when learning native or second languages. This matches option E

You can double check this is the correct answer by negating E, this becomes “acquiring a second language is NOT the same process as learning a first language”. This completely destroys the conclusion, so we know we have the answer. 

10. A

Here you should draw the individual tiles and then mark them off on all the options below, if one option contains all 6 it will be the correct option. This corresponds to answer A.

11. D

Watch the lesson on identifying conclusions.

The conclusion is actually the first sentence. You should have highlighted “need” as it is a conclusion indicator word. It is also this sentence which is the authors strongest opinion and the reason they wrote the passage. This matches option D

12. C

This question is a bit different to normal principle questions. Here they want us to simply find the principle in the passage.

The principle here is that we should not tamper with nature. The author makes this clear by clearly stating their opinion on meddling with what is natural and not knowing what it will lead to. The best option in C.

13. E

This question requires you to visualize in your head. 

The central part of the paper could be in each corner of the smaller square. If the centre is the top right corner, then we get C. If the centre is the top left corner, then we get D. If the centre is the bottom right corner, we get B. If the centre is the bottom left corner, we get A. This just leaves E. 

14. D

Watch the lesson on assessing the impact of additional evidence.

The conclusion is the last sentence which states that its fast food and lack of exercise that is to blame. However, if it is true that the USA had the most smokers in previous years then this could also be the cause, and thus the conclusion is weakened. 

15. B

Watch the lesson on assessing the impact of additional evidence.

The conclusion is the last sentence, which is that badgers should be culled. However, if it is true that there are other factors behind the TB rise, then this conclusion does not make any sense. B is thus the answer

16. C

You can see that it is currently January, so the clocks will next be reset in March. Now write the new times for each location (if their time changes) based on the change that occurs in March. 

London, Athens and Chicago will thus be set forward one hour. Santiago and Sydney will be set back one hour.

Both New York and Santiago will have their time at 11:37 given these changes, so the answer is C. 

17. C

Watch the lesson on identifying conclusions to learn how to solve it.

The last sentence is the conclusion. The word “would” is a conclusion indicator. It is also the sentence which is the strongest opinion of the author and the reason the author wrote the passage. This matches with option C. 

18. B

Watch the lesson on assessing the impact of additional evidence.

The last sentence is the conclusion. If it is true that voluntary organ donors are not increasing, then automatically assuming they are willing if they haven’t opted out would increase the supply of organs. This matches with B

19. E

Watch the lesson on assessing the impact of additional evidence.

The conclusion is the last sentence. If it is true that that the use of male models makes the typical model physique less desirable for women, then it strengthens the argument that male models should be celebrated as it will draw more attention to the issue the author writes about.

20. D

Watch the lesson on principles to learn how to answer this question.

The principle here is that people whose messages will be heard by people should use this in order to encourage people to do good things. 

Directors of companies can get their message across to a group of people (their employees), thus them recycling (a good thing) can encourage the employees to recycle as well. This perfectly matches the principle, so D is the answer.

21. C

This question is about NATO, which is one of the international organizations you should have learned about. You do not actually need to know all the founding members of NATO to answer this question, you just need to remember when roughly NATO was founded, which was 1949 (you just need to remember shortly after World War II). 

Knowing some basic history you should also know that Germany was split up between East Germany and West Germany at this time, thus “Germany” could not have been a founding member of NATO. 

22. D

Ancient wonders of the world are a topic we told you to study in our lesson on history and culture. If you have done this, you should know the seven ancient wonders of the world. 

Alternatively, you could also have remembered that out of the seven ancient wonders of the world only the Pyramids of Giza still exist, so the Parthenon of Athens (which still exists) cannot be one of them. 

23. E

Remember, wherever we can find DNA we will have transcription, which means we will also be able to find RNA in that organelle. The nucleolus, mitochondrion and chloroplast all have DNA and thus also have RNA. The SER has neither DNA nor RNA. The ribosome however is made from protein and rRNA, but has no DNA, so this is the correct answer. 

24. E

We know that the two genes are present on the same DNA molecule, and we know the organism is heterozygous for BOTH genes, thus r, R, e, and E, will all be present. This rules out all options except row 6 and 7. We are not given any information on how these alleles are arranged so either 6 or 7 could be true. We also know that since these 2 genes (or put another way, 4 alleles) will be present on one DNA molecule before mitosis, so when we have 2 cells after mitosis there will be 2 DNA molecules.

The answer is thus E

25. C

During translation mRNA is present as it is being translated, and tRNA is present in the ribosome. We can thus rule out 2,3 and 4. DNA is not directly present in translation so 1 and 5 are still not ruled out.

Considering transcription, tRNA can potentially be involved in transcription as a product (since to get tRNA we need to transcribe it from DNA) however it does not always have to be involved (for instance when we transcribe mRNA we do not need tRNA in the process). DNA however is ALWAYS involved in transcription since it is what is transcribed, meaning we can rule out row 5. So, row 1 must be correct.  

26. A

Uracil is only found in RNA not DNA, so rows 2,3 and 5 are ruled out. Phosphodiester bonds are found in both nucleic acids, so 1 and 5 are ruled out. This just leaves 4, and if we check it is true that both tRNA and DNA contain hydrogen bonds, adenine and a pentose sugar. So A is correct

27. C

Genetic drift and mutations happen at random, but artificial selection by definition is done by humans which means it does not occur randomly. As such only 1 and 2 are correct and the answer is C.

28. E

The sticky ends will be produced before the gene is isolated so Z comes before W. This eliminates options A, B and D. 

We need to identify the plasmid before we can inject the plasmid into the host, so X must come before Y. This eliminates C and gives us E.

29. A

E. Coli is a bacteria which is smaller than a red blood cell, and blood cells are smaller than epidermal cells. 

30. D

The liver produces bile and the gall bladder stores it.

31. A

A plasmid is a circular piece of DNA so if this is a whole plasmid it means it was once circular with the open ends on each side connected. That means that 1,2,3,4,5 must be complementary to AACGA. This means the sequence will be TTGCT which is option A

32. A

The heart rate is controlled by the medulla oblongata, which is in the brainstem (for this question just knowing the brainstem is responsible would be enough). 1 points to the brainstem so the correct answer is A

33. C

Every amino acid has an amino group, a carboxyl group, an R group and a hydrogen. If we brake the bond at 3 we will get two molecules with these 4 components, so this is the bond that needs to be broken. 

34. D

All options listed are coenzymes, not enzymes.

35. D

1: True: DNA replication occurs in S phase

2: False: After meiosis I we have haploid cells

3: True: at the start we had one cell with 46 chromosomes, after meiosis II we have 4 cells with 23 (so 92 chromosomes). 

36. D

Na+ channels are open to create an action potential (positive voltage) which occurs at step 2. 

37. E

There are 4 possible phenotypes for both crosses (the phenotype for R, for r, for T and t). Remember the capital letters represent the dominant phenotype. You can see that out of the possible combinations for both crosses there are 4 possible phenotypes for each, thus the difference is zero

38. C

The light reaction occurs in the thylakoids which stack into granum. NADP is the hydrogen carrier and when it carries a hydrogen after the light reaction it is reduced to NADPH. 

39. B

Phase 2 is metaphase, which is where the chromosomes line up (but not homologous chromosomes)

Phase 4 is telophase, which is where the nuclear envelope reforms

40. E

1: Yes, mitochondria are responsible for using carbohydrates for respiration. Furthermore mitochondria contain DNA which have pentose sugars in their backbone

2: Yes, proteins can be glycosylated in the golgi (which means they get carbohydrates attached)

3: Yes, chloroplasts produce glucose in photosynthesis, and also contain DNA with pentose backbones.

41. B

1: yes: this is a carbonate which will form a basic solution

2: No: this is just sodium chloride, it will not change the proton concentration when added to water, it will just dissociate into sodium and chloride ions

3: No: this will release protons which will increase acidity

42. D

Lead(II) has a +2 valency and iodine has -1, therefore Pb2+ will react with 2I to form PbI2 in this precipitation reaction. 

43. A

The CO group in the centre is a ketone. 

The CH2CHCH2 has a double bond and is therefore an alkene

The CHO group at the end is an aldehyde

44. E

1,2 and 4 all have 10 electrons (remember a +  refers to one electron removed, a – refers to an additional electron)

45. D

Remember Le Chateliers principle which in practice means making an adjustment on one side of an equilibrium equation will cause an offset on the other side.

If we add more water then we are increasing a product, meaning more reactant will be produced so 1 is correct. 

The reaction is exothermic so adding more heat will favour the reactants so 2 is true. 

Adding sodium hydroxide will react with the ethanoic acid which means that less methanol reacts with the ethanoic acid, so 3 is correct. You can think of this as the same thing as taking away ethanoic acid. 

Catalysts increase the speed of reactions, they don’t change final concentrations, so 4 is not correct. 

46. A

The intermolecular forces between CO2 molecules are weak, which means CO2 has a very low boiling point. You should also know carbon dioxide is a gas at room temperature so clearly it has the lowest boiling point. 

Ethanol has a polar carbon-oxygen double bond, meaning it can form stronger intermolecular forces than alkanes, and propane is an alkane. The order is thus carbon dioxide, propane and then ethanal.

47. E

Remember M = m/n. Assume we have 1 litre volume which means we have 0.1 moles. Use this for lithium hydroxide which becomes 24 = m/0.1. therefore m=2.4g. We assumed we had 1 litre so this becomes 2.4 g/L.

48. E

This is a strong base meaning the concentration of NaOH will be the same as the concentration of OH, so we can work out the pOH to be -log(0.01) = 2. If the pOH is 2 then the pH must be 12 since both must sum to 14. 

49. E

Carbon 1 can have 2 F atoms.

Carbon 2 can have 2 F atoms. 

Carbon-1 can have one F atom and carbon-2 can have one F atom. 

Carbon-2 can have one F atom and carbon-3 can have one F atom. 

Carbon-1 can have one F atom and carbon-3 can have one F atom. 

Carbon-1 can have one F atom and carbon-4 can have one F atom.

So, there are 6 possibilities.

50.D

Chromium always has 24 protons. Since the mass number is 52 there must be 28 neutrons. Since this is an ion with a +3 charge there must be 3 less electrons than protons, so 21 electrons.

51. B

Here you need to know molecular geometry. Draw them out as seen below and you will see the first two form linear shaped molecules that have 180 degree bond angles.

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52. B

The oxidation states of vanadium in each case are…

1: +5

2: +3

3: +2

4: +6

5: +5

1 and 5 thus have the same oxidation state.

53. C

The two shorter sides must be the base and the height. ½ x b x h = area = 18. We know one of the two shorter sides is twice the size of the other side (neither will be the hypotenuse since it’s the longest side). Let’s denote the sides as S

Area of a triangle is height x base x 0.5 (height and base are the two shorter sides)

S x S/2 x ½ = 18

S2/4 = 18

S2 = 72

S = √72

S = √9 x √4 x √2

S = 6√2

So we know one side will be 6√2 and the other 3√2

Pythagoras theorem states (6√2) 2+ (3√2)2 = C2

C2 = 90

C = 3√10

54. E

A joule is a Newton meter (N x m) so a joule per meter (N x mm) is the same as a newton. A newton is the unit of force.

55. A

First you need to know that x2– 1 = (x+1)(x–1). We can now rewrite the expression…

56. A

If we let x = 0, then y = 6. If we let y = 0, then x = 4. 

Hence the points of the line intersecting the axes are (0, 6) and (4, 0). 

The centre of the circle must be situated between these two points, if A and B lie on the edge of the circle and we are told the diameter of the circle is AB. The centre must therefore be (2, 3).

57. E

All three resistors sum to a total of 18 Ohms for maximum resistance. To minimise the resistance, the resistors must be connected in parallel. 1/total resistance = 1/R1 + 1/R2 + 1/R3 = ½. 

The minimum resistance is thus 2 Ohms.

58. A

The forces must be in equilibrium. Lets denote the left force as A and the force from the right as B.

We thus have A + B = 800N. Then if we choose the point where B is, the moments going up must equal the moments going down. This means 5A = 500 + (300 x 4), so A = 340N and B = 460N. 

59. E

1: True: the further up the ball is the more kinetic energy, and the further up it goes the more it has been slowed down due to the force of gravity

2: False: Velocity increases, not acceleration

3: False: gravity is always acting on the ball

60. E

xy = 3 x 5 x 10m x 10n = 15 x 10m+n

= 1.5m+n+1