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Home » IMAT Past Papers with Worked Solutions » IMAT Past Paper 2013 – Worked Solutions

IMAT 2013 ANSWERS

1. A

The passage is talking about how an initial benefit of labour mobility had costs later on. The only conclusion in the options given assuming only the facts given is A. The author does not pass any judgement on the issue at hand and thus C, D and E cannot be drawn as conclusions as they all suggest we do something to counter the issue. B cannot be true since the passage makes no mention of what the elderly are assuming.

2. E

The last sentence is the conclusion. If it is true however that patent laws protect drug companies, then the conclusion is invalid. E is thus correct.

3. C

The conclusion is not directly stated clearly in just one sentence, but you can still identify that the author is arguing that it is good to repair/renovate at risk historical buildings but this is not feasible under current legislation. Option C is the closest to this argument, so is thus the conclusion.

4. C

The passage compares gap years abroad and in ones own country, so the conclusion needs to state this. The last sentence is the conclusion, as it is the strongest argument the author wrote and the reason they wrote the passage. This matches closest to option C. 

5. E

The last sentence is the conclusion. The passage states that motivation may be due to a special aptitude to learning, thus E is not a flaw (or at least not a strong one). A, B, C, and D are all flaws so we know it has to be E.

6. B

The Incas are a civilisation you should learn something about, and a basic fact is that the current location of their former civilisation is Peru.

7. D

A placebo is an inactive substance/thing that is meant to look identical to a real drug so as to test if patients in a group taking the real drug are having an effect compared to the placebo group.

8. C

The survey was conducted in an area of heavy traffic, this means it may not be representative of the population as a whole, since a community with heavy traffic is probably more likely to want to use public transport than an area without traffic. This matches with option C

9. B

Hannibal famously invaded the roman empire by crossing the alps. Learning about the most important events in Roman history would have prepared you for this question

10. E

The WHO is an organisation you should have learned something about, if you have learned the things we emphasise in our lesson on international organisations you would know the WHO is headquartered in Geneva.

11. E

Top 7 levels: 7 ×(2 × 15 + 6 × 10)= 630

Bottom level: (2 × 15) + (4 × 10) = 70

Total spaces: 700.

Now we get 90% of this and remove 4: (700 × 0.9)− 4 = 626

12. C

The price per kg for the regular jar is 4.5/250 x1000 = 18. For the large jar it is 6.3/400 x 1000 = 15.75. The difference is thus €2.25

13. E

First convert all the numbers into their digital form based on whether the time is in am or pm. 3.51 pm would appear as 15.51, which looks the same upside down.

14. B

If a candidate received over 50% then the candidate who obtained 350 votes would have come in second place. 

But if no candidate got over 50% then the candidate who got 350 votes either came first or second 350 is more than the difference between 50% plus, and whatever votes are left aside from the 350. 

This means the candidate either came 1st or 2nd

15. D

This just requires you to read the chart. The longest unbroken world record was from 1904 with a time of 21.6 seconds and ended in 1932 where the time was 21.2 seconds. So the answer is 28 years

16. C

The conclusion is “But these deviations cannot tell us whether Planet X exists, because they would occur if the orbits had been wrongly predicted.” This is the strongest opinion of the author and the reason they wrote the passage. Underline the conclusion then match it to one of the answers, which will be C.

17. D

The flaw in this argument is that it assumes causality (that is it is the name John that causes greater success in college admission). This matches with option D

18. B

The conclusion is the last sentence, as here we find the strongest opinion of the author and what they are trying to convince us to do. “we need to” is a good conclusion indicator phrase as well since it involves the author telling us what he/she thinks we need to do/believe. This conclusion matches best with option B

19. C

If one scoop usually means one wash and we usually get 24 washes, then the soft water area which allows the same wash for 0.75 scoops will yield 24/0.75 washes which is 32 washes. 

20. A

The conclusion is the last sentence, stating that 2 year degrees are not long enough, certainly not for engineering. The conclusion is based on the facts, which are that not enough is taught in the first two years of the current system. This rests on the assumption that in the new system the amount of teaching will not change. This matches option A. You can check that A is correct by negating A (which becomes “2 year degree courses will NOT have the same amount of teaching per year”). This destroys the conclusion, so A is the answer

21. D

A, B, C and E have not been mentioned in the passage. D on the other hand is exactly what the author is presenting, and so is a logical conclusion to the passage

22. C

Galileo had nothing to do with the battery, this invention was after his time. Simply knowing when roughly Galileo lived and when roughly scientist started inventing batteries (which could be known by knowing when Alessandro Volta lived) would tell you this is the answer. If you have studied the great scientists from our history of science lesson you should have known to learn a bit about both of these scientists. 

23. A

The price is reduced to 1.40 from 1.60, and as we will spend 10 euros the price will be a further 10% off the price 1.40 which is 1.40 × 0.9 = 1.26

24. B

The passage says “Either way, you’re born as you are” which implies the author is saying we as well accept that we are born the way we are. This matches option B

25. B

Alpha Air is 30 minutes slower than Beta Air and since Alpha Air flight takes place every 10 minutes a Beta air flight will overtake 30 ÷ 10 = 3 planes due their different start times. 

26. A

100 − 60 − (40 × 0.60) = 16 will give us the amount of the walk left as a percentage of the overall walk after the next 4 days. 16% refers to 60 miles, so 60 ÷ 0.16 = 375 miles which is the total length of the walk.

27. E

We are concerned with the base of the safe, meaning you can ignore the height. The width and depth will be the same as the external dimensions but less 8cm. The width of the inside of the base is therefore 40 cm and the depth is 36 cm.

28. C

For this question it helps to draw out the hours as we would see on a normal clock (that is 12 at the top). This can be seen below. You can now see that the time is 8 o clock plus a few minutes, ruling out all options but C and E. Now look at the little clock, you can see it has rotated (anti clockwise) more than halfway, which means that given our two options the time must be 8:40. 

29. D

The US saw unemployment fall from 6.1 in February to 5.9 in March. In these same months inflation rose from 0.3 to 0.4. The United States is thus the country being referred to. 

30. B

The author says that helicopters were required by the great nations to give aid in time to Haiti, and at the same time blames them for not delivering the aid in time. This assumes that the great nations had these helicopters at their disposal, otherwise it makes no sense to put any blame on them.

31. C

Transcription produces RNA from DNA, and mRNA is a type of RNA

32. C

The liver is located below the diaphragm on the right side of the body

33. B

Amylose is a carbohydrate thus it cannot contain amino acids. Make sure to read carefully so you do not confuse amylose with amylase (an enzyme)

34. E

Ribosomes carry out translation not transcription. Transcription on the other hand occurs in the cell nucleus (for eukaryotes) by RNA polymerases.

35. C

Water is used during hydrolysis, thus water is required to break this phospholipid apart, as appose to water being released. So, the answer is 0.

36. E

1: True: Since the strand contains a GCT triplet the other strand would contain a CGA

2: True: for every A or T you count in a triplet add 2 bonds, for every C and G you count, add 3. You will then see every triplet contains 8 bonds.

3: False: To contain 3 uracil bases we would need 3 adenine bases, and we have just one

37. A

If the disease was sex linked and dominant then the mother would be affected. 

38. C

All cells listed except C are immune cells. C refers to a beta cell, which is an insulin secreting cell in the pancreas 

39. A

1: False: Glycolysis does not produce any CO2

2: False: Anaerobic respiration only produces CO2 if alcoholic fermentation is involved, but in mammalian cells lactic acid fermentation occurs and no CO2 is produced

3: True: Krebs cycle produces CO2

40. B

If there is 32% guanine then there must be 32% cytosine, meaning C and G make up 64% of the sample. The other 36% must be A and T, of which half will be thymine. Thymine is thus 18% of the sample.

41. A

Telophase comes after anaphase. Remember the abbreviation PMAT (prophase, metaphase, anaphase and telophase).

42. C

1: True: an advantageous mutation could mean more of these fish survive/reproduce, meaning increases allele frequency

2: True: If the fish reproduce more the allele will have higher frequency in the population

3: True: If the environmental change is favourable to the fish with the allele (or unfavourable to the fish without it) then the allele frequency will increase

43. D

When looking at these molecules make sure you realise that “made” means the product is produced (being used as an input does not count). Glucose is made in photosynthesis, NADPH is made in photosynthesis, Carbon dioxide is made in respiration and oxygen is made in photosynthesis. ATP however is produced in both, so D is the answer

44. A

1. True: Liver cells in metaphase have mitochondria, and only eukaryotes have mitochondria

2: False: Both prokaryotes and eukaryotes have ribosomes

3: False: A liver cell in metaphase will have its nucleus broken down

45. B

A gas becoming a solid is referred to as deposition

46. C

First, we have the addition of HBr over a double carbon bond. Second, we have the substitution of Br with a nitrile. Lastly, we have the reduction of nitrogen with hydrogen.

47. E

Organic isomers have the same molecular formula but different structure so 1 and 3 are correct. Their physical properties can change however so 2 is not correct.

48. C

1: True: the more bonds the shorter the length

2: True: 2 bonds are stronger than 1 but by less than 2 times the strength

3: True: One bond represents 2 shared electrons, so 3 bonds represents 6 electrons

49. A

Ga has a valency of +3. Carbonate has a valency of 2-. Thus if Ga and CO3 were to form a compound it would be Ga2(CO3)3

50. E

NOCl and KNO2: nitrogen has an oxidation number of 3. 

NO2: nitrogen has an oxidation number of 4. 

NO2Cl and Ca(NO3)2: nitrogen has an oxidation number of 5

51. B

Look at the quantity of Potassium atoms on each side. From this we get that 4 on the left is met by 2 on the right, therefore b = 2. From the number of sulphur atoms we see there is 1 on the left, and 6 on the right, so a = 6. 

From the number of hydrogen atoms, we get that 2 + 5 × 6 = 5 × 4 + 2, therefore 12 + 30 = 20 + 2, so c = 11.

52. A

Ethane has the formula C2H6 so the M for ethane is 30. M = m/n so n = 3000/30 = 100. That is we have 100 moles of ethane.

If we have 100 moles of ethane we have 600 moles of hydrogen. 1 mole = 6 x 1023 so 600 moles = 3.6 x 1026

53. A

1: True: The kinetic energy is at a maximum in the equilibrium stage

2: True: The potential energy is at a maximum when highest up (as gravity will be able to provide it with the most kinetic energy when released)

3: True: The gravitational potential energy is zero when an object is not lifted

54. A

m1 = 100N and x1 = 0.5m. String length = 1-0.5m

m2 = 80N and x2 = (2-x)

m3 = 300N and x3 =0.5m

m1x1 + m2x2 = m3x3

100(0.5) + 80(2-x) = 300(0.5)

(2-x) = (150 – 50)/80

2 – x = 1.25

X = 0.75

55. E

1: True: Using more turns would increase the voltage produced 

2: False: the thickness of the wire makes no difference to the voltage produced

3: True: If the speed increases this would increase the voltage produced

56. D

r2 = (x+1.5)2 + (y-0.5)2 = 32

x2+3x+2.25 + y2-y+0.25 = 9

x2+3x + y2-y = 9-2.25-0.25 = 6.5
x2+3x = (3/2)2 + y2-y+(-1/2)2 = 6.5
x2+3x+9/4 + y2-y+1/4 = 26/4+9/4+1/4
x2+3x+9/4 + y2-y+1/4 = 36/4

4x2+12x+9 + 4y2-4y+1 = 36
4x2+12x + 4y2-4y-26 = 0

2x2+6x + 2y2-2y-13 = 0

57. E

Get the units for each variable, if they equal the watt (also written J/s or VA or kg⋅m2⋅s−3) they will have units of power

1: True: (kg x m2/s2)/2s = kg x m2 x 2s

2: True: V2/(V/A) =VA 

3: True: (kg x (m/s2) x m)/s = kg x m2 x s-3

58. D

59. C

Start with 12 – x2 >8

X2 < 4

X < 2

Now do the same for 3 + 2x ≥ 5

X ≥ 2

So, we have 1 ≤ x < 2

60. A

If we draw a line from the right angle to the base we can split the triangle into two isosceles triangles. The height and the base of each will then be equal to r, so the base of the whole triangle is 2r

The area of the triangle is = 0.5 x h x b = 0.5 x r x 2r = r2

The area of the UNSHADES region is the difference between the triangles area and the quarter circles area