### QUESTIONS

**IMAT 2019** **ANSWERS**

**1. B**

First work out how many sales come from the centre stalls: £21,000 x 60% = £12,600

Now work out the price of an entire row of centre seats: 30 x £28 = £840

Let’s call the number of centre rows C. We know that C x £840 = £12,600

Solve for C and we get 15. The answer is thus B.

**2. D**

Remember our steps for working out critical thinking questions (watch the video on Detecting Reasoning Errors to solve this question).

- First you should read the question and realise you are looking for the flaw with the above argument.
- You then identify the conclusion: in this case it is that a teachers success should be based on how well they educate their students, not how well they entertain the student.
- You then find the flaw with this conclusion (see the video for the list of flaws that exist): The flaw here is that there is a flawed assumption. The writer assumes that making lessons enjoyable has no impact on how well the student is educated. This corresponds to answer D.

**3. D**

First, we need the area of the lawn. It is easiest to work out the area of the whole large rectangle then subtract the area of the top right square and then the bottom rectangle.

- Large rectangle area = (2+2+2) x (3 x 1) = 24m
^{2} - Top square area = 1 x 1 = 1m
^{2} - Bottom rectangle area = 2 x 1 = 2m
^{2}

The area of the lawn is thus the difference between the big rectangle and top square and bottom rectangle: 24 – 1 – 2 = 21m^{2}

We need 50g of seed per square meter: 21m^{2} x 50g = 1050g or 1.05kg

We can now see that the cheapest way to get 1.05kg is to buy 1kg for £14.00 and 100g for £2.00. This brings the total cost to £16.00

**4. C**

To answer this question you first need to learn the method explained in the lesson on Assessing the Impact of Additional Evidence. Of course, before reading the passage, read the question and realise you are dealing with this question type

- Find the conclusion: this is that it is unlikely that wooden floors will go out of fashion in the future
- Find the assumption: this is that peoples decision is based on (or at least influenced by) environmental reasons
- You can now see that option C would destroy the conclusion, as if it turned out laminate floors contained petrochemicals, then obviously it is not due to environmental reasons that laminate floors are increasing in demand, and thus the conclusion (that wooden floors will go out of fashion) is void since the assumption would no longer hold (that environmental factors are behind peoples purchasing decision)

**5. C**

First let’s see which events the girls used their joker. We can do this by working out the total points each girl would have assuming they didn’t use the joker, then compare the total points that would result in the points they actually scored. Remember, a joker doubles the points for the event it was used in.

- Tia scored (without the joker): 0 + 6 + 0 + 1 + 1 = 8 points. However, her total score is 14, meaning she must have used the joker in the 100m hurdles, which would have given her the extra 6 points. She won this event
- Jessica scored (without the joker): 6 + 1 + 6 + 0 + 0 = 13 points. However, her total score is 19, meaning she used her joker in the “800m run” or in the “high jump”, which would have given her the extra 6 points. She won this event
- Carolina scored (without the joker): 1 + 0 + 3 + 6 + 3 = 13 points. However, her total score is 14, thus she used the joker in the “800 m run” to get the extra point. She did NOT win this event
- Kelly scored (without the joker): 3 + 3 + 0 + 3 + 0 = 9 points. However, her total score is 12, thus she either used her joker in the “800m run” or the “100m hurdles” or the “long jump”, to get the extra three points. She did NOT win any of these events
- Helena scored (without joker): 0 + 0 + 1 + 0 + 6 = 7 points. However, her total score is 13, thus she used her joker in the “shot put” to get the extra 6 points. She won this event.

You can thus see that 3 girls won the event in which they used their joker and the answer must thus be C.

**6. D**

Watch the lesson on Drawing a Conclusion to learn the method for this question type. Remember to read the question first before the passage so you know which type of critical thinking question this is.

Read the passage and try find the focus point. This is that the brain training exercises seem to have positive effects on dementia. This corresponds to answer D.

**7. D**

Watch the lesson on Summarising the Main conclusion to learn the method for this question type. Remember to read the passage first so you can identify what type of critical thinking question this is.

Remember, we want to find the main argument of the author and thus the reason they wrote the text. If we can find some “conclusion indicator words” this will also help (see our video to find what these are). By this logic we can see the sentence “NDEs therefore do not have purely physiological causes” is the conclusion. This matches option D.

**8. D**

There are 3 strings needed to tie the box as seen in the image.

String 1: will cover the height and width: 2(20) + 2(30) = 100cm

String 2: will cover the width and length: 2(30) + 2(40) = 140cm

String 3: will cover the height and length: 2(20) + 2(40) = 120 cm

We also need 20cm for the knot. If we sum together all these string lengths, we get 380cm or 3.8m. This is answer D.

**9. D**

If you piece together all options except D you can see that the pattern can be formed, so D must be the answer. You could draw this out to see this, but this could waste time during the IMAT. Thus, I would recommend you skip this question unless you have plenty of time at the end of the test.

However, assuming you did attempt this question, you can see below how we have pieced together the pieces to make the final image. Option A is in black, option B in red, option E in blue and C is in green. This forms the same shape in the question, just in a different rotation as you can see below.

**10. **E

Watch our lesson on assumption type critical thinking questions to learn the method for this type of question.

The conclusion is that the drop in the catch is part of a long-term cycle related to fish migration and food-chain balance. They arrived at this conclusion based on the records of marlin catch rates. The author is therefore assuming these records are accurate. This corresponds with answer E, and to be sure we have the right answer we can reverse the assumption in answer E (which becomes “the records are NOT providing accurate information”). This reversed assumption destroys the conclusion, and thus we know we have the right answer.

**11. B**

To answer this question you needed to know Harper Lee was the author of *To Kill a Mockingbird*. This might seem random, but Harper Lee is a very famous author, and this is her most famous book. If you watched our lesson on Literature you will have learned that you should study literature by the author, and one of the things about the author you need to know is which their most famous books are. Harper Lee is one of the authors on our list of authors to study, so this was a question you would have been able to get

**12. B**

If you have watched our lesson on international organisations, you will have known how to prepare for this question. The UN is one of the most important international organisations for IMAT purposes, and one of the things you need to know about international organisations is what their tasks/objectives are. Thus, if you have studied this lesson, you would have been prepared for this question in the IMAT.

**13. A**

If you have watched our lesson on music history, you will have known how to prepare for this question. One of the things you need to learn about in Music History is famous composers, and one thing about famous composers you need to know is their most famous pieces/plays. Giacomo Puccini is a famous composer and Madama Butterfly one of his most famous pieces. As such if you had studied our lesson on music history, you should have got this answer.

**14. E**

In our lesson on the EU one of the many things we told you to learn about was which countries do NOT use the Euro but are in the European Union. Sweden is one of these countries so if you had taken our lesson on the EU, you should have gotten this question correct

**15. A**

If you have taken our lesson on literature then you should know that you should study history’s most famous authors, which of course includes Shakespeare. You should then also have memorised their most famous books and something about them. This question is asking for a bit more detail than usual, but hopefully one of the things you memorised from Shakespeare’s most famous plays is the location in which they are set. If so, you would know that A Midsummer Night’s Dream was not set in Italy.

**16. **C

If you have watched our lesson on history and culture these are some events you should know about. Remember we told you to also have a rough idea of when they happened (that is you should NOT remember specific dates but should remember for instance what century the event took place).

The October Revolution is when the Soviet Union was inaugurated, so you should know this happened in the early 1900s (as this is when the Soviet Union was formed). The Taiping Rebellion is a major historical event in Chinas history, and China is a major country, so hopefully, you learned something about this event. If so you should know it occurred in the 1800s.

The fall of the Western Roman Empire is ancient history, so we know this happened before the October revolution. Likewise, you should know at least who Charlemagne was, as he is one of Europe’s most famous kings of the Middle Ages. The Middle Ages was of course before the 1900s so thus before the October Revolution. The Taj Mahal’s date of construction is not important, you should know that this building is not something that was built in the previous century, so it must be older than the October Revolution.

The October Revolution is thus the most recent event listed.

**17. D**

If you watched our lesson on the history of science, you will know which Nobel Prize winners to learn something about. Marie Curie is definitely one of them, so you should have known the answer to this question

**18. E**

If you watched our lesson on Economics, you will have known to study a bit about game theory. The most famous example in game theory is The Prisoners Dilemma, so you should then have been able to get this question correct.

**19. B**

If you watched our lesson on minor topics, you will have studied the basics of major religions. You should thus know the founders of Christianity (Jesus), Islam (Muhammad), Buddhism (Buddha), and Confucianism (Confucius). The answer must thus be Hinduism

**20. C**

This is a question you are unlikely to have answered correctly unless you are Italian or have an interest in Italian politics or law. It is quite a specific question and not something that is easy to prepare for unless you are Italian. Do not feel bad if you got the answer incorrect, it is very unlikely to get all General Knowledge questions correct in the IMAT, even with plenty of study.

To prepare for this type of question it could be helpful to research the Italian state and how its political system works, as well major historical political events in Italy. However, this tends to be quite specific content to study, and is thus low yield. It is therefore not something you should worry too much about, remember general knowledge is not something you can be 100% prepared for.

**21. C**

This is a question about literature, and if you have studied our literature section you will have studied history’s most famous authors. All the authors listed in this question are on our list of authors to study, and one thing you should know about those authors is where they are from and what their most famous books are.

Rumi you should thus know was Persian, thus his books are obviously not from China.

**22. E**

If you have studied anything about law or governance you would know that legal systems in most modern states (western democracies) have a Judicial, Executive and Legislative branch.

**23. A**

We are told that a cells actual size has been magnified 30,000 times to become 30mm. Convert this to meters which becomes 0.03m. Now divide this by 30,000 to get the cells actual size, this becomes 1 x 10^{6} m or 1 um.

What type of cell is usually around one micrometre? Of the ones listed only a bacteria would be around this size, so the answer must be the coccus. See our video on cell size for a list of common sizes of cells.

**24. A**

B lymphocytes are formed in the bone marrow, and they also mature in the bone marrow (not the thymus). All cells in our body with a nucleus contain the same genes (they are just expressed differently). Row 3 is thus correct

**25. C**

Looking at the pedigree and knowing the trait is caused by a DOMINANT allele, we can say…

- The father and leftmost son are homozygous recessive.
- The mother must therefore be heterozygous (as she bears the trait but has a homozygous recessive son)
- The two affected children are heterozygous (as they have a homozygous recessive father and but are affected themselves)

We thus have 2 homozygous recessive and 3 heterozygous individuals, this corresponds to row 3 and thus option C.

**26. D**

During anaphase the sister chromatids are pulled apart (think “A” for “apart). Option D is thus correct.

**27. C**

The circles represent neuron somas, the lines axons and the < represents synapses.

In the parasympathetic nervous system, the axons of preganglionic neurons extend quite far from the spine. The post ganglionic neuron is short as well. This corresponds to answer C.

It also helps to realise that the autonomic nervous system operates with 2 neurons (both pre and postganglionic) which removes all options besides B and C. Neurons do not have multiple soma, this rules out option B.

**28. B**

The viral envelope surrounds the virus and is made of phospholipids to allow it to merge with the membranes of target cells. Phospholipids have fatty acids.

The viral capsid is made from protein, and protein is made from amino acids

The virus’s genetic material is made from nucleic acids (either RNA or DNA) and nucleic acids have phosphodiester bonds in their backbone.

The correct row is thus row 4 which is option B.

**29. D**

1. True: All cells in our body have the same genes (they are just expressed differently)

2. False: The alleles are the same (they are just expressed differently)

3. False: Just because something is white does not mean it has to be caused by two recessive alleles (white could for instance require a dominant allele,).

Thus only 1 is correct and D is the right answer.

**30. E**

Cartilage and endothelium are both tissues. Skin is an organ (made from many tissues), so option E is correct.

**31. A**

To solve this question just compare the two strands and see where the letters differ. Remember, an addition means a nucleotide has been added, a deletion means a nucleotide has been deleted, and a substitution means one nucleotide has been substituted for another.

P ATTCCGGGATTCCCT

Q ATTCCGGATTGCACT

G: deletion of G on the Q-strand

G: addition of G on the Q-strand

A/C: substitution of a C on the P-strand to an A on Q-strand

We thus have all 3 mutations, and the answer is thus A.

**32. E**

The question says the red pigment does not cross the cell membrane, thus the water should not turn red when the beetroot is placed solely in water that is just at 20 degrees. We can thus rule out row 1, 4 and 5.

Ethanol breaks down phospholipids (think how hand sanitiser kills bacteria) and the cell membrane (thus the water will turn red). HCl will also break down the cell membrane (thus the water will turn red) and HCl lowers pH which can denature proteins. Row 3 is thus correct

Row 2 is not correct because ethanol doesn’t denature proteins.

**33. A**

Row 1 is true: All amino acids have a COOH group. This COOH group also contains an OH group, but the second column says TWO and there are amino acids that don’t have an additional OH group (cysteine for example).

Row 2 is true: Glucose does not have a COOH group but does have more than 2 OH groups (5 to be precise)

Row 3 is false: Glycerol does not have a COOH group but it does have 3 OH groups.

Row 4 is true: All fatty acids have COOH groups but they don’t have 2 or more OH groups.

Option A is thus correct

**34. D**

An A-band contains the entire length of a single thick filament and the thick filaments don’t change in length, so 1 is correct

I-band is the zone of thin filaments that is not superimposed by thick filaments. Since the amount of think filament that is superimposed by thick filaments changes when the sarcomere contracts/releases, the I-band does change in length so 2 is not correct

H-band is the zone of the thick filaments that has no actin. This also changes in length based on sarcomere contraction/release, so 3 is incorrect

Thus, the answer is D

**35. E**

This question is quite easy to think about. The nephron helps get urea out of the blood and into the urine, so the liquid in the nephron will thus have urea in it. Since all the options point to areas in the nephron, there will be urea in all of them. Thus, E is correct.

**36. E**

1 is true: CO_{2} is produced during cellular respiration, and this occurs throughout the day and night

2 is true: as mentioned, CO_{2} is produced throughout the day and night

3 is true: plants use CO_{2} during photosynthesis

Thus, the answer is E

**37. C**

A restriction enzyme cuts DNA at its backbone, thus breaking phosphodiester bonds. Thus, C is correct.

Ligases join molecules covalently, not via H-bonds, so A is wrong

Restriction enzymes break covalent bonds, so B is wrong

Ligases don’t break phosphodiester bonds, so D is wrong

Restriction enzymes don’t form H-bonds, so E is wrong

**38. E**

Mitosis doubles the number of cells. If one cell is doubled 10 times this is the same as 2^{10} which is 1024.

**39. C**

Remember, haemoglobin having low affinity for oxygen means that it will release the oxygen, which is what we would expect it to do at a tissue performing actively. Thus, C is correct, and since only one option can be correct you can disregard the other answers.

**40. E**

For all the options listed, try find at least one ion that is involved

- Muscle contraction involves calcium ions
- Nerve impulses use sodium and potassium ions
- Photosynthesis uses protons (hydrogen ions)
- Oxidative phosphorylation also uses protons (hydrogen ions)

The answer is thus E

**41. C**

1 is wrong: Sugar does not provide any energy to the water as both the sugar and ice are at the same temperature

2 is wrong for the same reason that 3 is correct: adding the sugar caused the ice to melt, thus the melting point of the mixture must be lower than the ice (the ice does not melt at -1 degrees, but the mixture does, so the mixtures melting point is lower).

**42. A**

For a redox reaction to occur, the oxidation number of an element(s) must be different on each side of the equation. Below you can see the three equations and the oxidation numbers of each element.

Only in row 3 does there occur a change in oxidation numbers. Look at the lesson on redox reactions if you need help with oxidation numbers, and remember, you need to know your polyatomic ions (see the lesson on polyatomic ions!).

**43. C**

Here you just need to remember the formula for the equilibrium constant and plug in the values given in the question.

**44. E**

We have the mass (m) of hydrogen (1g), carbon (3g) and therefore we also have for oxygen (8-3-1 =4g). Remember the formula M=m/n. Use this for carbon, hydrogen and oxygen to solve for the number of moles (n)

n_{C}= 3/12 = 0.25 moles

nH= 1/1 = 1 mole

nO= 4/16 = 0.25 moles

Thus, we the same amount of oxygen and carbon atoms in this molecule and 4 times as much hydrogen. The only answer we have in our options that this could be is CH_{4}O so the answer is E

**45. E**

Both iodine and bromine are halogens, but iodine is further down the periodic table. This means it has more electrons which means HI’s dipole induced dipole forces will be stronger than that of HBr.

**46. E**

The fact that element Z forms a compound with oxygen that is ZO strongly implies it could be a group II element (as this would give it a +2 charge in ionic form which would allow it to bind in a 1:1 ratio with oxygen).

The oxide also reacts with acids which means it is basic, and group II oxides are basic.

Group II elements also react with water to form hydrogen gas

Thus, it has to be a group II element

**47. C**

A positive ion (cation) has lost one electron or more as compared to its elemental state, thus it will have more protons than electrons.

**48. D**

A molecule will have a permanent dipole moment if it is polar. Here you need to know the intermolecular forces of molecules and their molecular geometry (see our lessons on these topics).

You should know that carbon dioxide is a linear molecule and the two oxygens cancel each other out, making the molecule non-polar. Water has a bent shape, so it will be polar. Ammonia has a trigonal pyramidal shape so it will be polar. Thus 2 and 3 have permanent dipole moments and D is correct.

**49. D**

Here you need to remember the colour range for universal indicator (see our lesson on acids and bases). To refresh your memory, Red to orange to yellow are the more acidic colours in order from most acidic to least acidic, violet to blue to turquoise are the more basic colours in order from most basic to least basic, and green is a more neutral colour.

NaOH is basic so we should expect the solution to start from a violet or blue colour as these are alkaline colours for universal indicator (this means A and C cannot be true).

We then add HCl which should lower the pH, but we are also told we have the same concentration of NaCl and HCl so these should cancel each other out (as they are a strong acid and a strong base respectively) which should yield a neutral solution. That is the solution should stay at green and not go into the acidic yellow to red range. Thus, the answer is D

**50. B**

We have a molecule that is 50% tritium and 50% hydrogen. Tritium has an atomic mass of 3 (1 proton, 2 neutrons) and hydrogen an atomic mass of 1 (1 proton).

The relative atomic mass = 0.5(3) + 0.5(1) = 1.5 + 0.5 =2

**51. D**

Here you need to draw out the molecules. To be a structural isomer the molecules must have the same number of elements, but different structural shape.

As you can see 1 and 3 and clearly different, but 2 is actually the same molecule (the methyl group is on carbon 2 in both cases) so 2 does not show isomers. The correct answer is thus D.

**52. E**

First find the moles using n = c x V = 3 x 0.5 =1.5 moles.

The use M = m/n to solve for m. m = 1.5 x 64 = 96 grams.

The answer is thus E

**53. B**

If the car accelerates at 4 m/s^{2} and it does so for 5 seconds then the velocity at this point will be 20 m/s.

If the car accelerates at 20 meters per second (so 20 meters in 1 second) and we want to find how far it has travelled in 20 seconds then we know it must be 20 x 20 = 400m.

**54. D**

The lightest baby has a mass of 1.8 kg and since the range of masses of the three babies is 0.7 kg, then the heaviest child must have a mass of: 1.8 + 0.7 = 2.5 kg

We can now use X to denote the mass of the middle baby, and we then have all we need to create an algebraic expression of the median mass.

(1.8 + x + 2.5) / 3 = 2.1

X = 2.0 kg

So the answer is D

**55. E**

upthrust = weight of volume of water displaced by stone = mass of displaced water x g

The volume of the stone is equal to the volume of water displaced, so the volume of displaced water is 200cm^{3}

The mass of displaced water is = density of liquid x volume

m = 1.20 x 200 = 240 g

upthrust is therefore = 240/ 1000 x 10 = 2.4 N

So, the answer is E

**56. B**

When pressure increases volume decreases as the space gas molecules have to move is reduced. However, this is not linear as you reach a point where more pressure is required to reduce volume by the same amount as before.

Thus the relationship is a curved line with negative gradient of decreasing magnitude

**57. D**

First of all, 360 and 500 are not divisible by 7, so we can already rule out C and E. 500 is not divisible by 15, so we can rule out B. All three numbers are divisible by both 4 and 5, and since 4 and 5 are larger factors than 2 and 5 (as in option A) we know the answer must be D.

**58. E**

Multiply both sides by X and then by (X-2). This will give us 3(X-2) + 2X = X^{2} – 2X

Rearrange to X^{2} – 7x + 6 = 0

Rearrange to (X – 6)(X – 1) = 0

X is thus equal to 6 or equal to 1

Sum 6 and 1 and you get 7.

The answer is thus E

**59. C**

To answer this, make sure all the base numbers are 2.

Doing that we get

The answer is thus C

**60. E**

Here we need to use coulombs law where

In the first scenario

In the second scenario

Divide F_{2} by F_{1} and we get 3. We are told the force has a magnitude of F so the answer is 3F. The answer is thus E.